Tuesday, October 30, 2012

question

1.       Modulation index increased from 0 to 1 . Transmitted power now ?

2.       Deemphasis is used because

3.       In FM, maximum deviation at what point of modulating signal

4.       Voltage gain of emitter follower : <=1 , =1 , >=1 , cannot say

5.       CRO uses which method of focussing

6.       Slew Rate unit

7.       Positive Feedback is same as  : degeneration , regeneration

8.       Integrator is : LPF , HPF

9.       Lowest Efficiency in Power amplifier : A , B , AB , C

10.   When PLL is used as frequency multiplier, O/P is taken from

11.   Ideal OP Amp – Input Impedance = ? Output Impedance = ? , Voltage Gain = ?

12.   IC 555 uses how many Flip Flop combination

13.   PF of inductive circuit : 0 , 1

14.   Unit of magnetic flux

15.   2 heater 1000W, 250V connected in series in 250V , 50Hz ac mains. Power drawn =?

16.   100 batteries , 9V each in parallel combination, Voltage across combination ?

17.   HTTP = stateful/stateless protocol ?

18.   IP address starts with binary address 110 it is class : A , B , C , D

19.   Layer responsible for delivery of packet from node to node

20.   ADSL behaviour : upload and download which is more or less ?

21.    Damping factor = 1 : underdamped , critically damped , overdamped

22.   Difference between controlled variable and desired value of process control system

23.   Why differentiator is not part of control system : Increases input noise , increases error , reduces gain, reduces damping

24.   Definitiuon of Transfer Fn

25.   Identical Telephone no. under different exchanges are distinguished by : Modulation indices , language digit , access digit , area code

26.   Which is analog : DCM , DM , DPCM , PWM

27.   Carrier synchronization not needed in : BPSK , DPSK , QPSK , QAM

28.   Common ckt in Freq Hopp Spread Spectrum and Direct Seq Spread Spectrum : correlator , Freq Synthesizer , Sweep Generator , Pseudo Random Noise Code Generator

29.   Bit Rate _ Baud Rate ? : > , < , =

30.   Minimum Bwto transmit 56 kbps with no noise ?

31.   Asynchronous  data transfer : start stop as mark and space

32.   f = 10 kHz sampled at Nyquist rate time int B/W 2 success samples ?

33.   Find correct parity as odd parity : Rightmost bit as parity bit : 1111111 1 , 0011010 1 , 1100110 1 , 0000000 0

34.    Dynamic memory cell store data in : register , capacitor

35.   +0.5 V in TTL logic is : high , low , undefined , high impedance

36.   Convert BCD 0001 0111 to binary

37.   Resolution of 6 bit DAC

38.   5th clock of johnson counter gives o/p = 0111 , 6th clock gives o/p = ?

39.   Lissajous figure are eant for measuring : R , V , I , f

40.   Unit of Voltage Sensitivity : Ohm/V , V/Ohm , Ohm V , V

41.   Volts / div on CRO changes  : gain in vertical / sec , : gain in horizontal / sec , freq of timebase , freq of trigger

42.   Measurement of Q is based on principle of : Resonance , Mutual Inductance , Piezoelectric Effect , Peltier Effect

43.   Laser light is brighter because : Pure , Coherent , White , Monochromatic

44.   Contents of Instruction Poointer Specify

45.   Waveguide has cut of freq = 17KHz . Which freq will not pass by waveguide : 15 Khz, 22 Khz

46.   1 nepar = _ db

47.   Transmission length < (lambda/4) in short ckt behaves as

48.   Holding ckt in SCR

49.   Centre tapped transformer in single phase cycloconeuses : 2 , 4 , 6 , 8 SCR

50.   Maximum height of satellite : Apogee , Perigee

51.   Satellite stays in orbit because : Satellite wt. + speed , gravitational pull + inertia , centripetal force +speed , satellite wt +pull of sun and moon

52.   FET depends on controlling current through SC change : 1 polarity , 2 polarity , 4 , 8 polarity

53.   Beta : Current gain in CC Mode , Current gain in CE Mode, Voltage gain in CC Mode, , Voltage gain in CE Mode

54.   Flash Analog To Digital of each comparator is connected to : decoder , priority encoder , MUX , Demux

55.   To serially shift a nibble of data in shift register there must be clock pulses : 2 , 4 , 8 , 1 clock pulse for each data

56.   Mod 10 counter uses Flip flop : 10 , 4 , 2 , 8

57.   Which family IC have better noise immunity : TTL , ECL , CMOS , DTL

58.   Address required for 4096 bit memory arranged in 512 X 8 memory

59.   When 8 bits serial in / out shift reg. I sused for 20 (mew)sec  time delay. Find clock frequency

60.   Conversion time of 6 bit successive approximation type ADC : 32 , 64 , 6 , 1/6 usec

61.   Wein Bridge is used to measure : f , L , R , C

62.   Fibre optic cable best for high speed data transfer : single mode step index  , multiple mode step index  , single mode graded index  , multiple mode graded index

63.   Microcontroller includes : CPU + Memory + I/O + Clock Generator , CPU + Memory + I/O , CPU + I/O

64.   Fetch cycle  is : 1st part of instruction cycle ,

65.   Flag to manipulate movement of string : parity , zero , direction , inter

66.   Microwave signal propagates by way of : direct , surface , sky , standing wave

67.   Makes equivalent current generator in circuit analysis : Norton , Thevenin  , Maxm. Power Transfer , Superposition

68.   When HPF and  LPF section are connected  in // it as Band reject filter with : fl > fh , fl = fh , fl < fh

69.   When peak transmitted power of a radar is increased by a factor of 16 , maxm range increases by a factor : 2 , 4, 8, 16

70.   Tunnel diode : is  a point contact diode with high reverse resistance, is highly doped pn junction diode

71.   Arrow head of transistor symbol indicates : (drift / diffusion of  electron/hole)

72.   TRAPATT

73.   Currently nearly equal : Ic Ie , Ib Ie , Ic Ib , Ib Ic Ie

74.   Aspect ratio : raster width + height , Horizontal scanning frequency + Vertical Scanning frequency.



General question:-

Dieses of pellagra due to which reason?

Red blood cell is having ?

NH-15 is connect whict to city ?

 2010 FIFA world cup held in which country

Children should be sent to school they should not permit to work. This comes under which ARTICLE ?

 President should submit his resignation towhom ?

Mahatma Gandhi used to take advices from ?

Who is the president of INC during split of congress in session of 1907?

First company to have CISF SECURITY

first buddist council held in ?

National  Environment Engineering" Institute is located in?

Highest peak in the sathpura range?

Who introduce the Mansabdari SYSTEM

KONKAN coastal line is held b/n?

Author of "Neel Darpan"

which river cut the tropical of cancer twice
orange and some options

where will next climate summit will  take place
Mexico        Canada             Nigeria

Bear lake is in which country?

Tipaimukh DAM is in which state?

Krishna River originates from which part

Tadri Ultra Mega Power Project is in which state

Name the State with highest decay in population growth rate?

 Sex ratio of India as per latest census

Which championship was won by Grandmaster Parimarjan Negi?

National Solar Mission is to ensure 20000 MW power production by which year?

Which is the Highest Peak of SATPURA RANGE?

Moplah Rebellion occurred in 1921 in which part of the country?[options were a)coromandal coast b)malabar coast c)Punjab]

Who is the Chairman of the Scientific Advisory Council to the Indian Prime Minister?

In Assembly elections state in which a single party has won all seats?


Domain (electronics) question :

1.k-map equation related proved that .

2. Design of a analog circuit which have output as V=∫V1dt+ ∫V2dt+∫V3dt

  part 2

Domain questions :

1.aspect ratio in TV is width to height.

2. Adsl download rate is high compare to upload.

3.110 is class C in IP address.

4. if sun near to earth it is called ?

5.what is indicted the arrow head in transistor ?

6. if 100 battery of 9 volt is connect in parallel the what is output voltage ?

7.question related to satellite orbit

8.pcm,dm.dpcm technique

9.thyresistor

10. Carrier SYNCHRONIZATION

not needed in QPSK,PSK,FSK?

11.CRO AND SCR

12.LIJJAJOUS pattern

13.laser is produce white light due to ?

14.wein bridge is use to measure of frequency.

15.radar system is using multiple of 16 then what is the multiplier

 a)2 b)4 c)8 d)16

16.x= ab +bc  is having how many how's in the truth table?

17.1 nepar=_ db

18. resolution of 6 bit is ?

19. Find correct parity as odd parity : Rightmost bit as parity bit : 1111111 1 , 0011010 1 , 1100110 1 , 0000000 0.

20.slew rate

21.fetch cycle

22.voltmeter sensitivity is measure in ?

23.microcontroller is having?

24.pointer

25.tunnel diode

26.BCD to binary converter

27.baud rate and bit rate which is grater ?

28.ideal op amp is having   _i/p , _o/p , _bandwidth ?

29.IC 555 timer is having how many flip flop and comparator

31. Modulation index increased from 0 to 1 . Transmitted power now ?

32. De-emphasis is used because

33. Voltage gain of emitter follower : <=1 , =1 , >=1 , cannot say

34. CRO uses which method of focusing

35. Positive Feedback is same as  : degeneration , regeneration

36. Lowest Efficiency in Power AMPLIFIER IS CLASS  A , B , AB , C ?

37.   2 heater 1000W, 250V connected in series in 250V , 50HZ AC mains. Power drawn =?

38.   HTTP = stateful/stateless protocol ?

39.which  Layer responsible for delivery of packet from node to node ?

40. Difference between controlled variable and desired value of process control system

41. Why differentiator is not part of control system : Increases input noise , increases error , reduces gain, reduces damping

42   Which is analog : DCM , DM , DPCM , PWM

43.   Identical Telephone no. under different exchanges are distinguished by : Modulation indices , language digit , access digit , area code

44. Common ckt in Freq Hopp Spread Spectrum and Direct Seq Spread Spectrum : correlator , Freq Synthesizer , Sweep Generator , Pseudo Random Noise Code Generator

45. Minimum Bwto transmit 56 kbps with no noise ?

46. Minimum Bwto transmit 56 kbps with no noise ?

47.   f = 10 kHz sampled at Nyquist rate time int B/W 2 success samples ?

48. Find correct parity as odd parity : Rightmost bit as parity bit : 1111111 1 , 0011010 1 , 1100110 1 , 0000000 0

49.    Dynamic memory cell store data in : register , capacitor

50.   +0.5 V in TTL logic is : high , low , undefined , high impedance

51.    5th clock of johnson counter gives o/p = 0111 , 6th clock gives o/p = ?

52.   Volts / div on CRO changes  : gain in vertical / sec , : gain in horizontal / sec , freq of timebase , freq of trigger

53. .   Measurement of Q is based on principle of : Resonance , Mutual Inductance , Piezoelectric Effect , Peltier Effect

54. Laser light is brighter because : Pure , Coherent , White , Monochromatic

55 Centre tapped transformer in single phase cycloconeuses : 2 , 4 , 6 , 8 SCR

56. .   Maximum height of satellite : Apogee , Perigee

57. Satellite stays in orbit because : Satellite wt. + speed , gravitational pull + inertia , centripetal force +speed , satellite wt +pull of sun and moon

58. FET depends on controlling current through SC change : 1 polarity , 2 polarity , 4 , 8 polarity

59.   Beta : Current gain in CC Mode , Current gain in CE Mode, Voltage gain in CC Mode, , Voltage gain in CE Mode

60. Flash Analog To Digital of each comparator is connected to : decoder , priority encoder , MUX , Demux

61.    To serially shift a nibble of data in shift register there must be clock pulses : 2 , 4 , 8 , 1 clock pulse for each data

62. Mod 10 counter uses Flip flop : 10 , 4 , 2 , 8

63. Which family IC have better noise immunity : TTL , ECL , CMOS , DTL

64. Address required for 4096 bit memory arranged in 512 X 8 memory

65.    When 8 bits serial in / out shift reg. I sused for 20 (mew)sec  time delay. Find clock frequency

66. Conversion time of 6 bit successive approximation type ADC : 32 , 64 , 6 , 1/6 usec

67. Fibre optic cable best for high speed data transfer : single mode step index  , multiple mode step index  , single mode graded index  , multiple mode graded index

68.   Microcontroller includes : CPU + Memory + I/O + Clock Generator , CPU + Memory + I/O , CPU + I/O

69. Flag to manipulate movement of string : parity , zero , direction , inter

70. .   Microwave signal propagates by way of : direct , surface , sky , standing wave

71. Makes equivalent current generator in circuit analysis : Norton , Thevenin  , Maxm. Power Transfer , Superposition

72. When HPF and  LPF section are connected  in // it as Band reject filter with : fl > fh , fl = fh , fl < fh

73. When peak transmitted power of a radar is increased by a factor of 16 , maxm range increases by a factor : 2 , 4, 8, 16


#################################################################################

Electronic and communication 2010
1.The current I in a series RL circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v in the voltage across the RL combination then i
a) lags v by 45 degree
b) is inphase with v
c) leads v by 45
d) lags v by 90
2.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms
b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms
c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms
d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms

6.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX
b) Z = R
c) Z = jX
d) Z = R –jX
7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (2t/RC)
b) V/R e^ (t/RC)
c) V/2R e^ (2t/RC)
d) V/2R e^ (t/RC)
8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0
b) LC
c) R/L
d) RC
9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is
a) 2 ∟15
b) 2 ∟15
c) √2∟15
d) √2∟15
10.The Yparameter matrix (mA/V) of the twoport given network is
a) [2 1 2]
b) [2 1 1 2]
c) [1 1 2]
d) [2 1 1 2]
11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is
a) 16
b) 25
c) 100
d) 125
12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,4,6,8,3
c) 5,6,8,3
d) 4,6,7,3
13.The Yparameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is
a) ½ ohms
b) 1/√2 ohms
c) 1 ohms
d) 2 ohms
14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is
a) 10 V
b) 1 V
c) 0V
d) 10 V
15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is
a) Rj(wL/√2) ohms
b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms
c) Rj√2wL ohms
d) Rj√2wL ohms
16.The threshold voltage V is negative for
a) an nchannel enhancement MOSFET
b) an nchannel depletion MOSFET
c) an pchannel depletion MOSFET
d) an pchannel JFET
17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3. Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is
a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3
b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3
c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3
d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3}
18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a Ptype semiconductor
were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/Vs, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an Ntype semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is
a) µn = 2400 cm^2/Vs
b) µn = 1200 cm^2/Vs
c) µn = 1000 cm^2/Vs
d) µn = 600 cm^2/Vs
19.A common LED is made up of
a) intrinsic semiconductor
b) direct semiconductor
c) degenerate semiconductor
d) indirect semiconductor
20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the
a) tunneling effect
b) avalanche breakdown
c) impact ionization
d) excess heating of the junction.

21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is
a) 51
b) 49
c) 1
d) 0.02
22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a
a) Zener diode
b) Schottky diode
c) photo diode
d) Tunnel diode
23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a PN junction of bandgap energy 1.2 eV, (En  Ep) should be
a) greater than 1.2eV
b) less than 1.2eV
c) equal to 1.1eV
d) equal to 0.7eV
24.In a Pwell fabrication process, the substrate is
a) Ntype semiconductor and is used to build Pchannel MOSFET
b) Ptype semiconductor and is used to build Pchannel MOSFET
c) Ntype semiconductor and is used to build Nchannel MOSFET
d) Ptype semiconductor and is used to build Nchannel MOSFET
25.In a MOS capacitor with ntype silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = 0.41 V and the flatband voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is
a) 0.82 V
b) 0.41 V
c) 0.41 V
d) 0.82
Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes.
26.Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Both D1 and D2 are ON.
b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF.
c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF.
d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.
27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are
a) 2V and 1.1 mA
b) 0V and 0 mA
c) 2V and 0.7 mA
d) 4V and 1.3 mA
28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a
a) common emitter follows a common base
b) common base follows a common collector
c) common collector follows a common base
d) common base follows a common emitter
29.Inside a 741 opamp, the last functional block is a
a) differential amplifier
b) level shifter
c) classA power amplifier
d) classAB power amplifier
30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are
a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA
b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA
c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA
d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA
31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the
a) input impedance of the amplifier
b) output impedance of the amplifier
c) distortion in the amplifier
d) gain of the amplifier
32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter
a) r0
b) r∏
c) gm
d) β
33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in passband and stopband?
a) Chebyshev type I
b) Bessel
c) Chebyshev type II
d) Elliptic
34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is
a) 1
b) 1
c) 1.02
d) 1.02
35.Assume the opamps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peaktopeak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a
a) sine wave
b) square wave
c) pulse train
d) triangular wave
36.In a common source amplifier, the midband voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is
a) 6 MHz
b) 15 MHz
c) 150 MHz
d) 1.5 GHz
37.An opamp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000,CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the opamp is
a) 14 V
b) 24 V
c) 6 V
d) 8 V
38.The opamp in the circuit in given figure has a nonzero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is
a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt
b) – (1/RC)|vs(t)dt
c) –V
d) +V
39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the dutycycle of the output waveform Vo
a) increases by a factor of 2
b) increases by a factor of 1.44
c) remains constant
d) decreases by a factor of 1.44
40.Assume the opamp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is
a) 3.2 Vi
b) 4 Vi
c) 9 Vi
d) 10 Vi
41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Yˉ + Z)(Xˉ + Zˉ)(X + Y) is
a) XYZ+XZˉ+YˉZ
b) XˉYZˉ+XZ+XˉYˉ
c) XˉYZˉ+XZ+YZ
d) XYZ+XˉYˉ
42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to
a) F = BˉDˉ+CDˉ+ABCˉ
b) F = BˉDˉ+CDˉ+ABCˉD
c) F = ABˉDˉ+CDˉ+ABCˉ
d) F = BˉDˉ+CDˉ+ABCD
43.The Boolean function F = AˉDˉ+BˉD can be realized by one of the following figures
44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is
a) AˉBˉ+BˉCˉ+AC
b) ABˉ+BˉCˉ+ACˉ
c) ABˉ+BˉC+AC
d) AˉBˉ+BˉC+AˉC
45. Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) Both latch and flipflop are edge triggered.
b) A latch is level triggered and a flipflop is edge triggered.
c) A latch is edge triggered and a flipflop is level triggered.
\d) Both latch and flipflop are level triggered.
46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode
a) increases the propagation delay
b) increases the power consumption
c) prevents saturation of the output transistor
d) keeps the transistor in cutoff region
47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents
a) PROM
b) EPROM
c) EEPROM
d) PLA
48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter
a) Johnson counter
b) Ring counter
c) Ripple counter
d) Updown counter
49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a
a) 4 bit register
b) 8 bit register
c) 16 bit register
d) 32 bit register
50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored a) at the address contained in the register pair
b) in the register pair
c) in the accumulator
d) in a fixed location of the memory
51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is
a) x[n]
b) x[n1]
c) x[n] – x[n1]
d) 0.5(x[n1] + x[n])
52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal
a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4))
b) x[n] = u[n] + u[n]
c) x[n] = ∑{∂[n4k]∂[n14k]} where k = ∞to ∞
d) x(t) = e^ (1+j)t
53. If the inputoutput relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = ∞ to 2t
a) linear, timeinvariant and unstable
b) linear, noncausal and unstable
c) linear, causal and time invariant
d) noncausal, time invariant and unstable
54. Which one of the can be the magnitude of the transfer function | H(jw) | of a causal system
55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is
a) a real and odd function b) a complex function
c) a purely imaginary function
d) a purely imaginary and odd function
56. The laplace transform of given signal is
a) –A((1e^cs)/s)
b) A((1e^cs)/s)
c) A((1e^cs)/s)
d) –A((1e^cs)/s)
57. If X(z) is the ztransform of x[n] = (1/2)^ |n|, the ROC of X(z) is
a) |z| > 2
b) |z| < 2
c) 0.5<|z|<2
d) the entire zplane
58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are
a) constant and equal to each other
b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w
c) a constant and τg is proportional to w
d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w
59. A signal m(t), bandlimited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cutoff frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is
a) 20 kHz
b) 40kHz
c) 57 kHz
d) 77 kHz
60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are
a) 2 and 5
b) 0.5 and √5
c) 0.5 and 5
d) 2 and √5
62. The time required for the response of a linear timevariant system to reach half the final value for the first time is
a) delay time
b) peak time
c) rise time
d) decay time
63. The signal flow graph of the given network is
64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K, respectively, are
a) 2 and 10
b) 2 and 10
c) 10 and 2
d) 2 and 10
65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is
a) 0.5
b) 2.5
c) 3.5
d) 5.5
66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is
67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t)
of the system is
69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for
0<=K<∞, are
a) 0 and 270
b) 0 and 180
c) 90 and 270
d) 90 and 180
70. The bode plot corresponding to a proportional derivative controller is the one shown in given figure
71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous
a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0} is
a) 0
b) 0.25
c) 0.5
d) 1
73. If a singletone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is
a) 5W
b) 10W
c) 12W
d) 15W
74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a
a) higher local oscillatorn frequency
b) crystal oscillator
c) narrow band IF filter
d) narrow band filter at RF stage
75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the
a) sampler type
b) quantizer type
c) number of levels of the quantizer
d) sampling rate
76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AMDSBSC signal
a) Ratio detector
b) FosterSeeley discriminator
c) Product demodulator
d) Balancedslpoe detector
77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal
a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
b) A cos2πfct,  A sinπfct
c)  A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct
78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal
a) matched filter
b) phaselocked loop
c) envelope detector
d) product demodulator
79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency
a) |F – Fc|Tb = 0
b) |F – Fc|Tb = 1
c) |F – Fc|Tb = 2
d) |F – Fc|Tb = 4
80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having onesided power spectral density N0, is
a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0)
b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0)
c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0)
d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0)
81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is
a) –p(tT), 0<=t<=T
b) –p(Tt), 0<=t<=T
c) p(tT), 0<=t<=T
d) p(Tt), 0<=t<=T
82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as
a) CDMA
b) FDMA
c) TDMA
d) MCCDMA
83. GSM system uses TDMA with
a) 32 users per channel
b) 16 users per channel
c) 8 users per channel
d) 4 users per channel
84. If Rx(τ) is the autocorrelation function of a zeromean widesense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true?
a) Rx(τ) = Rx(τ)
b) Rx(τ) = Rx(τ)
c) σx^2 = Rx(0)
d) |Rx(τ)| <=Rx(0)
85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[XEX]^3 of a random variable X is
a) EX^3 – E^3X
b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2
c) 3EX^3 – E^3X
d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2
86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is
a) ¼
b) 1
c) 7/4
d) 2
87. A channel has a signaltonoise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is
a) 600 bps
b) 1200 bps
c) 4800 bps
d) 7200 bps
88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is
a) 0
b) 1
c) XZ
d) YZ
89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0
b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds
c) ∫s A X dS = ∫v (del X A)dv
d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds
90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) del X E =  ∂B/∂t
b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t
c) del.D = ρv
d) del.B = 0
91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by
a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
92. The skin depth of a nonmagnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^1 is
a) 0.0015 mm
b) 0.015 mm
c) 0.15 mm
d) 1.5 mm
93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is
a) 2π rad/m
b) 20π/3 rad/m
c) 20π rad/m
d) 2π *10^5 rad/m
94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is
a) 100 ohms
b) 75√2 ohms
c) 120 ohms
d) 150 ohms
95. A twoport network characterized by the Sparameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90 0.9 L90 0.2 L0] Is
a) both reciprocal and lossless
b) reciprocal, but not lossless
c) lossless, but not reciprocal
d) neither reciprocal nor lossless
96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is
a) 1 GHz
b) 3 GHz
c) 6 GHz
d) 9 GHz
97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along zaxis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape?
a) x=0
b) y=0
c) z=0
d) ø=45
98. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain
b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain
d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction
99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is
a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 1.64
d) 2
100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre?
a) It can support multiple modes
b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core
d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices
.
2009  Sample Paper
1. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)

2.
 Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include- 1&3
Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4
3. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second
4. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142
5. Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
6. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling
7. A superconductor is a –
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance(placementpapers.fresherjobs4u.com)
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
8. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF
9. The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
10. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
11. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
12. Critical load acting axially on a long column
Ans: (pi)2*E*I/L2
13. Relation between moment of area and radius of gyration
Ans: I=AK2
14. Cup shaped components are produced using which operation
Ans: drawing
15. A sheet of Al alloy having 2mm thickness is welded using which process
Ans: TIG
16. Two gears having teeth 18 and 40 and center distance 56…what is the module?
17.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms
18.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX b) Z = R c) Z = jX d) Z = R –jX
19 .In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (-2t/RC) b) V/R e^ (-t/RC) c) V/2R e^ (-2t/RC) d) V/2R e^ (-t/RC)
20 .For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0 b) LC c) R/L d) RC


http://ecengineeringhome.blogspot.in/2012/08/ongc-graduate-trainee-sample-question.html

###############################################################################
apt and gk
http://www.mediafire.com/view/?8awkni35444i8yb

http://aptitude9.com/category/online-aptitude-test/
http://aptitude9.com/category/general-awareness-test/

gk
http://www.mediafire.com/?oe6k9hf4ac07d




#################################################################
  elated posts:
  1. IFFCO Recruitment 2012 for Graduate Engineer Trainee
  2. ONGC Recruitment 2012 Notification
  3. KMML Recruitment 2012 for Executive Trainee Vacancies
  4. HPCL Recruitment 2012 for Officer Trainee Engineers
  5. TELK Recruitment 2012 for Trainee
  6. SAIL Recruitment 2012 Notification
  7. APSRTC Traffic Supervisor Trainee Recruitment 2012
  8. IFFCO Recruitment 2012 for Graduate Engineer Trainee
  9. PNB Recruitment 2012 for Management Trainee
  10. SAIL Rourkela Recruitment 2012
  11. APSRTC Traffic Supervisor Trainee Recruitment 2012
  12. Uttarakhand Power Corporation Limited Recruitment 2012
  13. APSRTC Mechanical Supervisor Trainee Notification 2012
  14. APEPDCL Recruitment 2012
  15. APNPDCL Recruitment 2012
  16. APPSC Assistant Executive Engineers Recruitment 2012 Notification
  17. TELK Recruitment 2012 for Trainee
  18. Coal India Management Trainee Recruitment 2012 Notification
  19. IFFCO Recruitment 2012 for Graduate Engineer Trainee
  20. EIL Recruitment 2012 for Management Trainee(MT)
  21. EIL Recruitment 2012 for Management Trainee(MT)
  22. TELK Recruitment 2012 for Trainee
  23. APPSC Assistant Executive Engineers Recruitment 2012 Notification
  24. APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer Results 2012
  25. IFFCO Recruitment 2012 for Graduate Engineer Trainee
  26.  
  27.  
http://www.engineersinstitute.com/psu_previous_papers_isro-ongc_ntpc_sail_paper.php
http://aptitude9.com/category/general-awareness-test/


  1. A single phase transformer is connected to a supply of voltage V and frequency f and is supplying a load, connected across its secondary winding. If the supply voltage is reduced from V to V/2, the flux established in the core will
        1. decrease by nearly 50%
        2. increase by nearly 50%
        3. remain unchanged
        4. be affected by amount of load and not by the applied voltage
  2. Under magnetic saturation of the core of a transformer, the reactance parameters of its equivalent circuit are affected such that
        1. X1 and X2 increase while Xm does not change
        2. X1 and X2 do not change while Xm decreases
        3. X1 and X2 do not change while Xm increases
        4. X1 and X2 decreases while Xm does not change
  3. A single phase 2000/200 V, 10 kVA, two winding transformer is reconnected as a step-up autotransformer with 2000 V winding as primary. The kVA rating of the autotransformer shall be
        1. 10 kVA
        2. 11 kVA
        3. 110 kVA
        4. 220 kVA
  4. The power factor at which power is drawn by a transformer is
        1. very low under O.C. test but high under S.C. test
        2. high under O.C. test but low under S.C. test
        3. low both under O.C. and S.C. tests
        4. high both under O.C. and S.C. tests
  5. The O.C.C. of a shunt d.c. generator is represented by E = 12+66I. If the field resistance is 70 ohms, the no-load voltage of the generator will be
        1. 144 V
        2. 210 V
        3. 220 V
        4. 288 V
  6. In d.c. shunt motors, the developed torque is proportional to
        1. induced e.m.f.
        2. armature current
        3. output power
        4. line current
  7. The speed of a separately excited d.c. motor can be controlled below base speed by (a) armature resistance control and (b) supply voltage control. What happens to the slope of modified speed-torque characteristics under the two methods?
        1. It changes in both types of control
        2. It remains unchanged in both types of control
        3. It remains unchanged in armature resistance control while changes in supply voltage control
        4.  It remains unchanged in supply voltage control while changes in armature resistance control
  8. The polarity of interpoles used in d.c. machines is
        1. same as the main pole ahead in generators while opposite of the main pole ahead in motors
        2. same as the main pole ahead ion motors while opposite of the main pole ahead in generators
        3. same as the main pole ahead in both motors and generators
        4. opposite of the main pole ahead in both motors and generators
  9. In synchronous generators, examine the following statements about voltage regulation:
      1. Synchronous impedance method gives pessimistic results
      2. MMF method gives optimistic results
      3. In unsaturated machine both methods (synchronous impedance and MMF) give same result Which of the statements are correct?
    • 1, 2 and 3
    • Only 1 and 2
    • Only 3
    • Only 2 and 3
  1. Under symmetrical short circuit of a synchronous generator, the armature reaction is 
        1. magnetizing
        2. demagnetizing
        3. cross-magnetising
        4. mainly magnetising
  2. In synchronous generators, the fifth harmonic in induced emf can be eliminated by using coils show chorded by an angle
        1. 9o
        2. 18o
        3. 27 o
        4. 36o
  3. In induction motor operation, a slip greater than 1 refers to
        1. regenerative braking
        2. motoring in reverse direction
        3. plugging
        4. dynamic braking
  4. As the applied voltage to an induction motor, operating under no-load, is reduced to half
        1. its speed reduced and stator current increases
        2. its speed reduced and stator current also reduces
        3. its speed reduces but there is not change in stator current
        4. there is no change in speed but stator current reduces
  5. A 3-phase induction motor is delivering a load of 10 kW at a lagging p.f. of 0.5. If a 3-phase capacitor bank of 7.3 kVAR is connected at its input, the resulting kVA drawn from supply shall be (approximately)
        1. 26.5
        2. 24.5
        3. 20.0
        4. 14.0
  6. An electric motor developing a starting torque of 10 Nm starts with a load of 6 Nm at its shaft. If the acceleration at start is 2 rad/sec2 , the moment of inertia of the system must be
        1. 2 kg-m2
        2. 2 N-m2
        3. 0.5 kg-m2
        4. 0.5 N-m2
  7. A synchronous motor works as a synchronous condenser if
        1. underexcited
        2. overexcited
        3. excited with 100% excitation
        4. unexcited
  8. In relation to damper bar winding in a synchronous motor, examine the following statements:
      1. Damper bars are provided in slots on poles
      2. Damper bars improve excitation
      3. Damper bars help the motor self start
      4. Damper bars minimize hunting.
         Which of the statements are correct?
    1. 1, 2, 3
    2. 2, 3
    3. 1, 4
    4. 1, 3, 4
  9. In large power ratings, synchronous motor is considered superior to induction motor, since
        1. it is less expensive
        2. its efficiency is better
        3. it can be operated at better power factor
        4. its speed regulation is superior.
  10. An induction motor drive is designed for two speed operation. For this purpose, the motor is provided with two windings on its stator corresponding to 4 poles and 8 poles. While the motor was running on 4 pole winding, a changeover to 8 pole winding is made. The motor will
    • experience dynamic braking
    • experience regenerative braking
    • experience no braking but will slow down due to its inertia
    • draw dangerously high current
  1. A d.c. shunt motor drive of 100 h.p. is run (a) at half the rated speed by armature voltage control and (b) at 1.5 times the rated speed by field control. Its power rating in the two cases shall be modified as
        • 100 h.p. in both cases
        • 50 h.p. in case (a) and 150 h.p. in case (b)
        • 50 h.p. in case (a) and 100 h.p. in case (b)
        • 100 h.p. in case (a) and 150 h.p. in case (b)
  2. A single phase full controlled rectifier can work as inverter, if the firing angle is between
        • 0o and 90o
        • 60o and 90o
        • 90o and 180o
        • 0o and 60o
  3. When d.c. voltage is converted to a.c. by an inverter, PWM technique is used to
        • control only the output voltage from within the inverter
        • control both the output voltage and frequency from within the inverter
        • control the output current
        • reduce losses in the inverter
  4. A thyristor which is in ON state is to be switched OFF. For this purpose a reverse bias is applied across it. Examine the following statements regarding flow of current from anode to cathode (forward current):
      • Forward current can continue to flow if the circuit is purely resistive
      • Forward current can continue to flow if the circuit is dominantly inductive
      • Forward current can continue to flow if the circuit is dominantly capacitive
      • Forward current will immediately stop flowing.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    • Only 4
    • Only 1
    • Only 2 and 3
    • Only 2
  5. In a 3-phase full controlled thyristor bridge rectifier operating under continuous conduction mode, each thyristor conducts for
    • 180o and two thyristors conduct at a time
    • 120o and three thyristors conduct at a time
    • 180o and three thyristors conduct at a time
    • 120o and two thyristors conduct at a time
  6. A single phase fully controlled rectifier is feeding a d.c. motor. At a = 0o, the armature voltage is 200 V and motor speed is 1000 rpm. Neglecting armature resistance and considering continuous conduction, the armature voltage and speed at a = 60o will be
    • 100 V and 500 rpm
    • 100 V and 1000 rpm
    • 200 V and 500 rpm
    • 100 V and speed will depend upon load
  7. The grading capacitors are provided across the series connected interrupters in EHV circuit breakers for
        • reducing short circuit current
        • improving power factor
        • equalizing distribution of recovery voltage across the interrupters
        • preventing inductive current chopping.
  8. The minimum cost operating condition for a thermal plant is that
    • the larger units should generate more power as compared to smaller units
    • the smaller units should generate more power as compared to larger units
    • the incremental cost rate of the units be proportional to their rating
    • the incremental cost rate of all the units be equal
  9. The effect of earth on a three-phase transmission line is to
    • increase its capacitance and decrease inductance
    • decrease its capacitance and increase inductance
    • increase its capacitance without affecting inductance
    • increase its inductance without affecting capacitance.
  1. In case of a transmission line if the voltage regulation is negative, then the load power factor is
    1. zero
    2. lagging
    3. unity
    4. leading
  2. The voltage gradient at the surface of a cable, having a conductor of radius r and a sheath of radius R, is minimum when
    1. R = r/e
    2. R = r
    3. R =er
    4. R = er
    where e = natural exponent
  3. In an N-bus power system with M-PV buses, the size of the Jacobian matrix for load flow calculation is
    1. N×N
    2. (N-M) ×(N-M)
    3. (N-1) × (N-1)
    4. (N-M-1) × (N-M-1)
  4. The zero-sequence equivalent circuit of a delta-star transformer, with solidly grounded neutral, is
  5. The plug setting multiplier of a 5 Amp. IDMT relay for a fault current of 4000 Amp. and a relay setting of 125%, with a C.T. ratio of 80 will be
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 4
    4. 8
  6. If the cost of electricity generation is to be reduced then
    1. the diversity factor and load factor both should be low
    2. the diversity factor and load factor both should be high
    3. the diversity factor should be high while the load factor should be low
    4. the diversity factor should be low and the load factor should be high
  7. The coefficients of reflection for voltage and current for an open ended line are respectively
    1. -1.0 and -1.0
    2. -1.0 and 1.0
    3. 1.0 and 1.0
    4. 1.0 and -1.0
  8. If G is the MVA rating of a synchronous machine with inertia constant H sec. and operating frequency f, then the angular momentum M of the machine, in MJ-sec/electrical degree, is
  9. Circular grooves are provided underneath the insulator disc for
    1. reducing the weight of the disc
    2. improving disc strength
    3. increasing cooling of the disc
    4. increasing the creepage distance
  10. The arc formation in vacuum circuit breaker is initiated by
    1. field emission
    2. thermal emission
    3. photo emission
    4. secondary emission
  11. The series reactors are used to
    1. limit over voltages
    2. control Ferranti effect
    3. limit fault current
    4. improve stability
  1. If the spacings Dab, Dbc and Dca between the phases a, b, and c of a three phase transmission line are not equal, then the equivalent spacing Deq can be calculated as 
    • (Dab + Dbc + Dca)/3
    • (Dab * Dbc * Dca)/3
    • (Dab + Dbc + Dca)1/3
    • (Dab * Dbc * Dca)1/3
  2. For calculating fault current for a double line to ground fault in an ungrounded system
    • positive, negative and zero sequence networks are connected in series
    • positive, negative and zero sequence networks are connected in parallel
    • positive and negative sequence networks are connected in parallel
    • positive and negative sequence networks are connected in series
  3. The unit of R, the regulation constant of turbine speed governor, is
    • Hz/MW
    • MW/sec
    • MW/Hz
    • MW-Hz
  4. If in a power system the line to line base voltage is VB kV and the 3-phase base MVA is SB, then the base impedance of the system is
  5. The pumped storage hydro plants are used as
    • Base load plants
    • Peak load plants
    • Mid-range plants
    • both (A) and (B)
  6. The specified operating criteria for the proper operation of interconnected power system is , that Area Control Error (ACE) must be zero at least once in a
    • 1 sec period
    • 1 min period
    • 10 min period
    • 1 hr period
  7. If a network has b branches and n nodes, then the number of independent KVL equations for the network are
    • b-n
    • n-b+1
    • b-n-1
    • b-n+1
  8. What will be the value of ZL for maximum power transfer condition in the circuit shown in Fig. Q.47?

    • (2-j2)W
    • (2+j2)W
    • (3-j2)W
    • (3+j2)W
  9. Which of the following statements does not apply to series RLC circuit?
    • The current and the admittance are maximum at resonance
    • The phase angle of the impedance changes from +90o to –90o as the frequency is varied from 0 to ¥
    • The total stored energy in the circuit is constant at resonance
    • The power factor is unity at resonance
  10. The average value of a sine wave over a full cycle is
    • zero
  1. A two port network is reciprocal and symmetrical, if ABCD parameters satisfy the conditions:
    • AB-CD = 1 and A = D
    • AD-BC = 1 and A = D
    • AC-BD = 1 and A = D
    • AD-BC = 1 and B = C
  2. Tellegen’s theorem is applicable to
    • linear time invariant networks only
    • non-linear time invariant network only
    • any network satisfying Kirchoff’s current and voltage laws
    • linear time variant network only
  3. The circuit element having identical properties for forward and reverse direction of current flow through it, is called a
    • linear element
    • irreversible element
    • bilateral element
    • unilateral element
  4. A fundamental cut set contains
    • only one tree branch and minimum number of links
    • only one link and minimum number of tree branches
    • only tree branches
    • only links
  5. In the circuit shown in Fig. Q. 54 if the switch is opened at t = 0 and the initial current through the switch and L1 is 10 A, then the current i(t) and the voltage v(t) of t > 0 are

    • 0 A, 0 V
    • 0 A, ¥ V
    • 6 A, 12 V
    • 10 A, 20 V
  6. The Thevenin and Norton equivalents of network A at points X, Y (Fig. Q.55) can not be found if

    • Networks A and B are coupled
    • A is an active network
    • B is a passive network
    • B is a non-linear network
  7. If X×Y= 0 then XÅY is equal to
    • X+Y
    • 1
  8. The value of base x will be
  9. (101)x + (110)7 = (101)8 + (29)16
    • 2
    • 7
    • 8
    • 10
  10. Consider the counter circuit shown in Fig. Q.58.

  11. If the present state QA QB of the counter is QA = 1 & QB = 0, the next state of the counter will be
    • QA = 1, QB = 1
    • QA = 1, QB = 0
    • QA = 0, QB = 1
    • QA = 0, QB = 0
  12. In 8085 A mp, stack pointer is a 16 bit register which is
    • Incremented by 2 whenever data is pushed on to stack
    • Incremented by 2 whenever data is popped from stack
    • Incremented by 1 whenever data is pushed on the stack
    • Neither incremented nor decremented a result of PUSH and POP operation
  1. The instruction LDA 0805H is used to input a data from an I/O device. Choose the correct statement
    • It is possible only if device is interfaced using memory mapped I/O
    • It is possible only if device is interfaced using I/O mapped I/O
    • Instead of LDA 0805H, the instruction STA 0805H should be used
    • only IN PORT instruction can be used in 8085 A mp.
  2. The macro RTL implemented by INR M in 8085 A microprocessor is
    • (M)¬ (M) +1
    • (H,L)¬(H,L) + 1
    • M(H,L) ¬M(H,L) +1
    • (H) ¬ (H) + 1, (L) ¬ (L) +1
  3. In an 8085 A microprocessor when INTR interrupt, becomes active, the control will be transferred to
    • 0024 H memory location
    • 003C H memory location
    • anywhere in the memory decided by the interrupting device
    • 0034 H memory location
  4. In an 8255 programmable peripheral interface both the groups are programmed in made ‘0’. The possible number of combination in which the ports can be programmed is
    • 16
    • 4
    • 3
    • 2
  5. The meaning of direct addressing mode is
    • The address of operand is available in register pair
    • The address of operand is available in PC
    • The data is directly available in the instruction itself
    • The address of the operand is available in the instruction itself. 
  6. The schematic symbol shown in following Fig. Q. 65 is that of

    • Zener diode
    • Esaki diode
    • Varistor
    • Varactor
  7. The V-I characteristic shown in Fig. Q. 66 is that of

    • PN junction diode
    • Tunnel diode
    • Zener diode
    • Varactor
  8. In a four variable V-K Map shown in Fig. simplified expression for X is

  9. In following circuit assuming voltage drop of LED as 2 V, the LED current when transistor is saturated will be

    • 12 mA
    • 9.7 mA
    • 6 mA
    • 5.8 mA
  1. In the following circuit the collector voltage VC is (assume VBE = 0.7 V)

    • -17.4 V
    • 5.6 V
    • 12.3 V
    • 17.4 V
  2. From the following V-K map the simplified expression for Z is

  3. The method of absolute measurement of resistance is
    • Ohm method
    • Potentiometer method
    • Lorenz method
    • Rayleigh method
  4. The instrument which gives the value of the quantity to be measured in terms of instrument constants and its deflection is called the
    • absolute instrument
    • secondary instrument
    • recording instrument
    • integrating instrument
  5. The current passing through a resistor of (50±0.2)W is (4.0±0.02)A. The limiting error in the computed value of power will be
    • 0.2 %
    • 0.4 %
    • 0.9 %
    • 1.4 %
  6. The coil of an instrument has 40 turns. The mean length of the coil is 25 mm and the axial length of the coil is 20 mm. If the flux density is 0.1 T and the coil current is 20 mA, the torque on the moving coil will be
    • 40×10–6 N-m
    • 20×10–6 N-m
    • 40×10–3 N-m
    • 20×10–3 N-m
  7. In thermocouple element, heat energy transferred to the hot junction is converted to electrical energy by
    • Johnson’s effect
    • Seebeck effect
    • Hall effect
    • Faraday’s effect
  8. The scale of dynamometer type instrument marked in terms of RMS value would be
    • uniform throughout
    • non-uniform, crowded near full scale
    • non-uniform, crowded at the beginning
    • non-uniform, crowded around mid-scale
  9. The harmonic distortion percentage is accurately measure with
    • V.T.V.M.
    • An oscilloscope
    • Harmonic distortion meter
    • Square wave generator
  10. A thermometer has a time constant of 3.5 s. It is quickly taken from a temperature 0oC to water bath at 100oC. What temperature will be indicated after 1.5 s?
    • 100oC
    • 50oC
    • 35oC
    • 15oC
  11. A digital voltmeter employees an ADC which requires a start pulse, uses an analog comparator and has a relatively fixed conversion time independent of applied voltage. The ADC is
    • digital ramp converter
    • dual slope converter
    • successive approximation converter
    • flash type
  1. In measurements made using Q-meter, impedance elements should be connected in 
    1. star
    2. delta
    3. series
    4. parallel
  2. The measured values of iron losses of a magnetic specimen are 15 W and 25 W at, 40 Hz and 60 Hz respectively at constant flux density. The respective hysteresis and eddy current losses at 50 Hz are
    1. 14.584 W and 5.208 W
    2. 7.5 W and 12.5 W
    3. 5.208 W and 14.548 W
    4. 5 W and 10 W
  3. The most common and best bridge method for precise measurement of inductance over a wise range is
    1. Maxwell’s
    2. Hay’s
    3. Wien
    4. Anderson
  4. The AC bridge that can be used for accurate determination of excitation frequency is
    1. Wien bridge
    2. Schering bridge
    3. Anderson bridge
    4. De Sauty bridge
  5. A thermo-couple arrangement is to be used to measure temperature in the range of 700-800oC. Point out the pair that would be most suitable for this application
    1. Copper-constantan
    2. Chromel-alumel
    3. Platinum-platinum rhodium
    4. Iron-constantan
  6. Rotameter is employed for measuring
    1. flow
    2. rotation
    3. specific gravity
    4. viscosity
  7. Consider the following statements regarding the stability of a control system
    1. Gain margin and phase margin are negative
    2. Gain margin and phase margin are positive
    3. All roots of characteristic equation must lie in left half of s-plane
    4. Gain margin is positive and phase margin is negative
    Out of these statements
    1. 1 and 3 are correct
    2. 1 and 2 correct
    3. 2 and 3 are correct
    4. 3 and 4 are correct
  8. In the feedback system shown below, if the steady state error for a step input is 0.05, then the value of K is

    1. 0.05
    2. 0.95
    3. 1.9
    4. 19
  9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
  10. List I (Location of poles on s-plane)
    List II (Impulse Response)
    Codes:
                       A         B          C          D
    1.      4          1          2          3
    2.      3          4          2          1
    3.      1          3          2          4
    4.      1          3          4          2
  1. The Nyquist plot for a control system is shown in Fig. Q.89. The Bode plot of |G| for the same system will be

  2. A unity feedback second order control system is characterized by
  3. where
    J = moment of inertia
    B = viscous damping coefficient
    K = system gain
    The transient response specification which is not affected by variation of system gain is the
    1. peak overshoot
    2. damped frequency of oscillations
    3. setting time
    4. rise time
  4. The second order system X = AX has . The value of its damping factor x and natural frequency wn are respectively
    1. 0.5 and 1
    2. 1 and 1
    3. 0.707 and 2
    4. 1 and 2
  5. A negative unit feedback system has forward path transfer function as Ks/(s2+2s+25). The break in point(s) of root locus occur at
    1. s=5
    2. s=-5
    3. both A & B
    4. s = 25
  6. In an electrical analog of mechanical system of rotational motion, using torque-voltage analogy, inertial and viscous damper are respectively analogous to
    1. Inductance and capacitance
    2. Capacitance and resistance
    3. Inductance and resistance
    4. Capacitance and inductance
  7. The characteristic equation of a feedback system is given by

  8. For this system, stable closed loop behavior can be ensured when gain K is such that
    1. 0 £ K £ 40
    2. 0 £ K £ 10
    3. 0 £ K £ ¥
    4. 0 £ K £ 20
  9. The eigen values of the matrix  are
    1. (a+1), 0
    2. a, 0
    3. (a-1), (a-1)
    4. 0, 0
  10. A first order linear system is initially relaxed. For a unit step signal u(t), the response of the system is
  11. (1-e-3t), t > 0
    If a signal 3. u(t) + d(t) is applied to the same initially relaxed system, the response will be
    1. 3(1-e-3t) .u(t)+ e-3t. d(t)
    2. (1-3e-3t) .u(t)
    3. 3(1+e-3t) .u(t)
    4. 3.u(t)
  12. Consider the following statements regarding the non linear system
    1. dead zone can be classified as single valued non-linearity
    2. hysteresis and backlash can be classified as double valued non-linearity
    3. Coulomb friction can be classified as double valued non-linearity
    Out of these statements
    1. 1 and 3 are correct
    2. all three are correct
    3. 1 and 2 are correct
    4. 2 and 3 are correct
  13. Consider the system

  14. .
    The condition for complete state controllability and complete observability is
    1. d1 > 0, b2 > 0, b1 and d2 can be anything
    2. d1 > 0, d2 > 0, b1 and b2 can be anything
    3. b1 > 0, b2 > 0, d1 and d2 can be anything
    4. b1 > 0, b2 > 0, d1 < 0 and d2 can be anything
  15. The semilog plot of gain characteristic (BODE plot) of a network is shown in the Fig. Q.99.

  16. The gain cross over frequency wc is
    1. 20 rad/sec
    2. 30 rad/sec
    3. 40 rad/sec
    4. 25 rad/sec
  17. The pole-zero configuration of a phase lead compensating network is given by

No comments:

Post a Comment